Q. 321: Which of the following is an example of a missing resource?
A. An object
B. Run Results
C. A Regular Action
D. An External
Q. 322: What are the available step commands in QuickTest?
A. Step, Step Into, Step Out
B. Step Into, Step Over, Step Out
C. Step Test, Step Action, Step Function
D. Run from Step, Debug from Step, Run from Step
Q. 323: When a test is run in update mode, what is updated?
A. The test results
B. The object descriptions
C. The action names in the test
D. The logical names in the test
Q. 324: What are the phases in the QuickTest workflow?
A. Plan, Record, Enhance, Run
B. Prepare, Record, Verify, Run
C. Plan, Create, Verify & Enhance
D. Prepare, Create, Verify & Enhance, Integrate
Q. 325: Why is low-level recording mode useful?
A. It records exact keyboard operations on an object.
B. It records exact coordinates of all mouse movements.
C. It uses the object repository to determine what methods can be used.
Q. 326: What are test object properties?
A. Those properties as defined in a description Object
B. Those properties as defined in Object identification
C. Those properties displayed by an object at run-time
D. Those properties used in the Object Repository for object identification
Q. 327: What is the function of the Object Repository Manager?
A. Assign variable names to test objects
B. View/make/modify a Local Object Repository
C. View/make/modify a Shared Object Repository
D. Define new test objects using programmatic descriptions
Q. 328: Where are virtual object collections stored?
A. In a Function Library
B. In the local Object Repository
C. In the Object Repository Manager
D. Data folder inside of the QTP installation directory
Q. 329: In the Object Identification dialog box, which properties can be viewed?
A. The base filter and optional properties
B. The mandatory and optional properties
C. The base filter and assistive properties
D. The mandatory and assistive properties
Q. 330: Where do you turn Smart Identification IN?
A. The Object Repository
B. The Test Settings dialog
C. The General Options dialog
D. The Object Identification dialog
Q. 331: How do you know if Smart Identification has been used in a test?
A. The Smart Identification icon appears in the test results
B. The test results will show a run error, causing a test failure
C. The properties used by the object repository will be changed
D. The Object Repository will show the Smart Identification icon
Q. 332: What options are available to filter objects in the Target Object Repository pane when merging object repositories?
A. Show all objects or Show only objects with conflicting object types
B. Show all objects or Show only objects with conflicting descriptions
C. Show only objects with conflicting logical names or Show only objects with conflicting object types
D. Show only objects with conflicting logical names or Show only objects with conflicting descriptions
Q. 333: What is the default ordinal identifier?
A. The location
B. The object id
C. The nativeclass
D. The index number
Q. 334: Which statement is used to associate a procedure with a test object class?
A. RegisterFunction
B. RegisterUserProc
C. RegisterUserFunc
D. RegisterProcedure
Q. 335: What must you do before a shared object repository can be edited?
A. Enable Editing
B. Add a new object
C. Open the object repository
D. Open an action that uses that shared object repository
Q. 336: Where do you configure an action to use a shared object repository?
A. Test Settings
B. Action Settings
C. Action Call Properties
D. Associate Repositories
Q. 337: You should use local object repositories when you:
A. Work with single-action tests
B. Work with multiple-action tests
C. Create multiple tests for a single application
D. Expect the test object properties to change frequently
Q. 338: Where can you merge two shared object repositories?
A. The Object Repository
B. The Object Repository Manager
C. The Associate Object Repositories Tool
D. You can only merge local object repositories
Q. 339: In the Expert View, the following is always visible and the Expert View always displays the script for the selected action?
A. Action List
B. Expert List
C. Check List
D. View List
Q. 340: When you modify the name of an object, in the local object repository the name is automatically updated in _____ for all occurrences of the object
A. Keyword View
B. Both Keyword & Expert View
C. Expert View
D. Changing the name of an object does not affect keyword or Expert View
A. An object
B. Run Results
C. A Regular Action
D. An External
Q. 322: What are the available step commands in QuickTest?
A. Step, Step Into, Step Out
B. Step Into, Step Over, Step Out
C. Step Test, Step Action, Step Function
D. Run from Step, Debug from Step, Run from Step
Q. 323: When a test is run in update mode, what is updated?
A. The test results
B. The object descriptions
C. The action names in the test
D. The logical names in the test
Q. 324: What are the phases in the QuickTest workflow?
A. Plan, Record, Enhance, Run
B. Prepare, Record, Verify, Run
C. Plan, Create, Verify & Enhance
D. Prepare, Create, Verify & Enhance, Integrate
Q. 325: Why is low-level recording mode useful?
A. It records exact keyboard operations on an object.
B. It records exact coordinates of all mouse movements.
C. It uses the object repository to determine what methods can be used.
Q. 326: What are test object properties?
A. Those properties as defined in a description Object
B. Those properties as defined in Object identification
C. Those properties displayed by an object at run-time
D. Those properties used in the Object Repository for object identification
Q. 327: What is the function of the Object Repository Manager?
A. Assign variable names to test objects
B. View/make/modify a Local Object Repository
C. View/make/modify a Shared Object Repository
D. Define new test objects using programmatic descriptions
Q. 328: Where are virtual object collections stored?
A. In a Function Library
B. In the local Object Repository
C. In the Object Repository Manager
D. Data folder inside of the QTP installation directory
Q. 329: In the Object Identification dialog box, which properties can be viewed?
A. The base filter and optional properties
B. The mandatory and optional properties
C. The base filter and assistive properties
D. The mandatory and assistive properties
Q. 330: Where do you turn Smart Identification IN?
A. The Object Repository
B. The Test Settings dialog
C. The General Options dialog
D. The Object Identification dialog
Q. 331: How do you know if Smart Identification has been used in a test?
A. The Smart Identification icon appears in the test results
B. The test results will show a run error, causing a test failure
C. The properties used by the object repository will be changed
D. The Object Repository will show the Smart Identification icon
Q. 332: What options are available to filter objects in the Target Object Repository pane when merging object repositories?
A. Show all objects or Show only objects with conflicting object types
B. Show all objects or Show only objects with conflicting descriptions
C. Show only objects with conflicting logical names or Show only objects with conflicting object types
D. Show only objects with conflicting logical names or Show only objects with conflicting descriptions
Q. 333: What is the default ordinal identifier?
A. The location
B. The object id
C. The nativeclass
D. The index number
Q. 334: Which statement is used to associate a procedure with a test object class?
A. RegisterFunction
B. RegisterUserProc
C. RegisterUserFunc
D. RegisterProcedure
Q. 335: What must you do before a shared object repository can be edited?
A. Enable Editing
B. Add a new object
C. Open the object repository
D. Open an action that uses that shared object repository
Q. 336: Where do you configure an action to use a shared object repository?
A. Test Settings
B. Action Settings
C. Action Call Properties
D. Associate Repositories
Q. 337: You should use local object repositories when you:
A. Work with single-action tests
B. Work with multiple-action tests
C. Create multiple tests for a single application
D. Expect the test object properties to change frequently
Q. 338: Where can you merge two shared object repositories?
A. The Object Repository
B. The Object Repository Manager
C. The Associate Object Repositories Tool
D. You can only merge local object repositories
Q. 339: In the Expert View, the following is always visible and the Expert View always displays the script for the selected action?
A. Action List
B. Expert List
C. Check List
D. View List
Q. 340: When you modify the name of an object, in the local object repository the name is automatically updated in _____ for all occurrences of the object
A. Keyword View
B. Both Keyword & Expert View
C. Expert View
D. Changing the name of an object does not affect keyword or Expert View
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