Q. 341: When does QuickTest Professional 9.2 use assistive properties for an object?
A. Only when Smart Identification is enabled
B. When the Ordinal identifier is set to Index
C. When the base filter properties are not sufficient for unique identification
D. When the mandatory properties are not sufficient for unique identification
Q. 342: When a test with multiple actions is saved, which component is added in each action within the test?
A. User log file
B. Global Data Table
C. Object Repository
D. Active Screen settings
Q. 343: The test settings of Test A have been set to Run from row 1 to row 4 in the Data Table iterations section. Action As Action Call Properties is set to Run all rows. How many times in total will Action A be executed if the Local Data Table has 5 rows and the Global Data Table has 10 rows?
A. 20
B. 40
C. 14
D. 50
Q. 344: When enhancing your tests, what do programmatic descriptions allow you to do? Select three.
A. Utilize the Object Repository.
B. Bypass the Object Repository.
C. Perform the same operation on a list of objects with similar properties.
D. Perform different operations on a list of objects with different properties.
E. Perform an operation on a dynamic object chosen based on run-time object properties.
Q. 345: Which QuickTest Professional tool can be used to identify the Run-time Object Properties and Methods of an object in the application under test?
A. Object Spy
B. Object Repository
C. Object Identification
D. Object Repository Manager
Q. 346: Why are regular expressions used in tests? Select two.
A. To set an object property
B. To define an object property
C. To check the addins installed
D. To define a checkpoint's range of values
Q. 347: How can you make a test bypass the Object Repository during test run?
A. Turn the Object Repository off
B. Use a programmatic description
C. Delete all objects in all repositories
D. Add the object in the Object Repository Manager
Q. 348: How can you tell that QuickTest Professional 9.2 is running a test in Normal mode?
A. It minimizes the Active Screen.
B. It displays an execution marker.
C. It does not display an execution marker.
D. It displays a message box indicating it is running in Normal mode.
Q. 349: During recording, which function key generates a Standard Checkpoint?
A. F1
B. F3
C. F10
D. F12
Q. 350: Which file contains the sequence of user actions captured during recording?
A. Script.mts
B. Default.xls
C. Resource.mtr
D. ObjectRepository.bdb
Q. 351: Which components are created by default with each new action? Select three.
A. Folder
B. Local Data Sheet
C. Global Data Sheet
D. Local Object Repository
E. Global Object Repository
Q. 352: Which utility object can be used to send a message to the Test Results?
A. Setting
B. Reporter
C. Properties
D. Environment
Q. 353: What are the two main options available in the Record and Run Settings dialog box for Windows applications? Select two.
A. Record and Run Only On
B. Record and Run Test on Any Open Browser
C. Record and Run Only on the Windows Desktop
D. Record and Run Test on Any Open Windows-based Application
Q. 354: What is the keyword used to define how the counter variable in a For Next loop increments?
A. ++
B. Skip
C. Step
D. ExitFor
Q. 355: How does QuickTest Professional categorize an object?
A. By its Value
B. By its Class
C. By its Properties
D. By its Window focus
Q. 356: Which QuickTest Professional term describes a function that provides more time for an object to process before moving on to the next step?
A. Test Object
B. Wait Statement
C. Custom Checkpoint
D. Synchronization Point
Q. 357: Which type of parameter is system-generated during a test run?
A. Output
B. Environment
C. XML Structure
D. Random number
Q. 358: What are the elements of a test step in QuickTest Professional 9.2? Select three.
A. Item
B. Value
C. Action
D. Window
E. Process
F. Operation
G. Procedure
Q. 359: Which of the following are valid settings for the Active Screen capture level? Select three.
A. All
B. Full
C. Partial
D. Complete
E. Minimum
F. Maximum
Q. 360: During recording, from which command or feature can you add a Synchronization point?
A. Edit menu
B. Insert menu
C. Tools menu
D. Active Screen
A. Only when Smart Identification is enabled
B. When the Ordinal identifier is set to Index
C. When the base filter properties are not sufficient for unique identification
D. When the mandatory properties are not sufficient for unique identification
Q. 342: When a test with multiple actions is saved, which component is added in each action within the test?
A. User log file
B. Global Data Table
C. Object Repository
D. Active Screen settings
Q. 343: The test settings of Test A have been set to Run from row 1 to row 4 in the Data Table iterations section. Action As Action Call Properties is set to Run all rows. How many times in total will Action A be executed if the Local Data Table has 5 rows and the Global Data Table has 10 rows?
A. 20
B. 40
C. 14
D. 50
Q. 344: When enhancing your tests, what do programmatic descriptions allow you to do? Select three.
A. Utilize the Object Repository.
B. Bypass the Object Repository.
C. Perform the same operation on a list of objects with similar properties.
D. Perform different operations on a list of objects with different properties.
E. Perform an operation on a dynamic object chosen based on run-time object properties.
Q. 345: Which QuickTest Professional tool can be used to identify the Run-time Object Properties and Methods of an object in the application under test?
A. Object Spy
B. Object Repository
C. Object Identification
D. Object Repository Manager
Q. 346: Why are regular expressions used in tests? Select two.
A. To set an object property
B. To define an object property
C. To check the addins installed
D. To define a checkpoint's range of values
Q. 347: How can you make a test bypass the Object Repository during test run?
A. Turn the Object Repository off
B. Use a programmatic description
C. Delete all objects in all repositories
D. Add the object in the Object Repository Manager
Q. 348: How can you tell that QuickTest Professional 9.2 is running a test in Normal mode?
A. It minimizes the Active Screen.
B. It displays an execution marker.
C. It does not display an execution marker.
D. It displays a message box indicating it is running in Normal mode.
Q. 349: During recording, which function key generates a Standard Checkpoint?
A. F1
B. F3
C. F10
D. F12
Q. 350: Which file contains the sequence of user actions captured during recording?
A. Script.mts
B. Default.xls
C. Resource.mtr
D. ObjectRepository.bdb
Q. 351: Which components are created by default with each new action? Select three.
A. Folder
B. Local Data Sheet
C. Global Data Sheet
D. Local Object Repository
E. Global Object Repository
Q. 352: Which utility object can be used to send a message to the Test Results?
A. Setting
B. Reporter
C. Properties
D. Environment
Q. 353: What are the two main options available in the Record and Run Settings dialog box for Windows applications? Select two.
A. Record and Run Only On
B. Record and Run Test on Any Open Browser
C. Record and Run Only on the Windows Desktop
D. Record and Run Test on Any Open Windows-based Application
Q. 354: What is the keyword used to define how the counter variable in a For Next loop increments?
A. ++
B. Skip
C. Step
D. ExitFor
Q. 355: How does QuickTest Professional categorize an object?
A. By its Value
B. By its Class
C. By its Properties
D. By its Window focus
Q. 356: Which QuickTest Professional term describes a function that provides more time for an object to process before moving on to the next step?
A. Test Object
B. Wait Statement
C. Custom Checkpoint
D. Synchronization Point
Q. 357: Which type of parameter is system-generated during a test run?
A. Output
B. Environment
C. XML Structure
D. Random number
Q. 358: What are the elements of a test step in QuickTest Professional 9.2? Select three.
A. Item
B. Value
C. Action
D. Window
E. Process
F. Operation
G. Procedure
Q. 359: Which of the following are valid settings for the Active Screen capture level? Select three.
A. All
B. Full
C. Partial
D. Complete
E. Minimum
F. Maximum
Q. 360: During recording, from which command or feature can you add a Synchronization point?
A. Edit menu
B. Insert menu
C. Tools menu
D. Active Screen
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